Interesting, Peregrine--
Except for one thing: we purchased the license under specific terms of agreement. My questions are only rhetorical, but:
Would such a SC judgement be retroactive or from the date of judgement? Would we not be bound to the terms of the license agreement, regardless of what the laws of one or more countries may state?
As mentioned, I'm not challenging your argument but just wondering... even an unwritten handshake agreement is legally binding if those terms can be verified. Would it not be outside the "spirit" of the law to, in effect, break a promise?
Except for one thing: we purchased the license under specific terms of agreement. My questions are only rhetorical, but:
Would such a SC judgement be retroactive or from the date of judgement? Would we not be bound to the terms of the license agreement, regardless of what the laws of one or more countries may state?
As mentioned, I'm not challenging your argument but just wondering... even an unwritten handshake agreement is legally binding if those terms can be verified. Would it not be outside the "spirit" of the law to, in effect, break a promise?